UPSC Prelims 2023 General Studies (GS) Paper I – Answer Key & Detailed Solutions
This resource presents a provisional answer key and comprehensive solutions for the UPSC Prelims 2023 General Studies (GS) Paper I. Compiled by experienced educators and subject matter experts, the solutions reflect in-depth knowledge and analysis, yet full accuracy can only be assured after the release of the official key by UPSC.
(a) Andhra
(b) Gandhara
(c) Kalinga
(d) Magadha
Explanation:
- Dhanyakataka, also known as Dhanakataka or Dharanikota, was an ancient city located in present-day Amaravati in Andhra Pradesh, India. It was an important Buddhist center during the ancient and medieval periods.
- The Satavahana dynasty ruled a major part of South India from the 2nd century BCE to the 3rd century CE.
- Dhanyakataka gained prominence as a Buddhist center during their rule.
- The Satavahanas were known for their patronage of Buddhism.
- Dhanyakataka became a significant site for Buddhist monasticism.
- It housed numerous monasteries, stupas, and educational institutions.
- Scholars and monks from different parts of India and other regions were attracted to the city.
With reference to ancient south india, Korkai, Poompuhar and Muchiri were known for?
[a] capital cities
[b] ports
[c] centres of iron-and-steel making
[d] shrines of Jain Tirthankaras
Explanation:
In ancient South India, Korkai, Poompuhar (also known as Kaveripattinam), and Muchiri (also known as Muziris) were known for different aspects:
- Korkai: Korkai was an ancient port city located in present-day Tamil Nadu. It was known for being an important center of trade and maritime activities. Korkai was a flourishing port and played a significant role in maritime trade with ancient Rome, Greece, and other regions. It was particularly renowned for its trade in pearls and precious gems. Korkai was also associated with the early history of the Pandyan Kingdom.
- Poompuhar (Kaveripattinam): Poompuhar, also known as Kaveripattinam, was an ancient port city located on the banks of the river Kaveri in present-day Tamil Nadu. It was known for its cultural and literary significance. Poompuhar is mentioned in ancient Tamil literature, including the Sangam literature, which describes it as a prosperous city with bustling trade and a center for arts and learning. Poompuhar was renowned for its seafaring activities, trade connections with various regions, and its contribution to Tamil literature and poetry.
- Muchiri (Muziris): Muchiri, also known as Muziris, was an ancient port city located in present-day Kerala. It was a major center of maritime trade and one of the primary gateways for the trade between the Indian subcontinent and the Mediterranean region. Muchiri played a crucial role in the flourishing spice trade and served as a significant hub for the export of valuable commodities such as spices, especially black pepper, and other luxury goods. It attracted merchants from different parts of the world, including the Roman Empire. copyright©iasexpress.net
These three ancient cities of Korkai, Poompuhar, and Muchiri played important roles in trade, commerce, and cultural exchange, contributing to the economic prosperity and cultural development of ancient South India.
With reference to ancient India, consider the following statements:
1. The concept of Stupa is Buddhist in origin.
2. Stupa was generally a repository of relics.
3. Stupa was a votive and structure in commemorative Buddhist tradition. How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Explanation:
- The concept of Stupa is Buddhist in origin: This statement is incorrect. Stupas are believed to have originated as pre-Buddhist tumuli in which śramaṇas were buried. This suggests that the concept of the stupa predates Buddhism.
- Stupa was generally a repository of relics: This statement is correct. Stupas were commonly constructed to enshrine relics of the Buddha or other revered Buddhist figures. Relics were often placed in a small chamber or casket within the stupa.
- Stupa was a votive and structure in commemorative Buddhist tradition: This statement is also correct. Stupas were constructed as votive offerings by Buddhist devotees as an act of religious devotion and to commemorate important events, teachings, or individuals associated with Buddhism.
Therefore, Only two statements are correct.
Which one of the following explains the practice of Vattakirutal mentioned in Sangam poems?
(a) Kings employing women bodyguards
(b) Learned persons assembling in royal courts to discuss religious and philosophical matters
(c) Young girls keeping watch over agricultural fields and driving away birds and animals battle
(d) A king defeated in a committing ritual suicide by starving himself to death
The correct answer is (d). Vattakirutal is a practice mentioned in Sangam poems in which a defeated king commits ritual suicide by starving himself to death. This was done to avoid the humiliation of being captured by the enemy.
Consider the following dynasties: 1. Hoysala 2. Gahadavala 3. Kakatiya 4. Yadava
How many of the above dynasties established their kingdoms in early eighth century AD?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) None
The correct answer is (d). None of the dynasties established their kingdoms in the early eighth century AD.
The Hoysala dynasty was established in the 10th century AD. The Gahadavala dynasty was established in the 11th century AD. The Kakatiya dynasty was established in the 12th century AD. The Yadava dynasty was established in the 13th century AD.
Therefore, none of the dynasties established their kingdoms in the early eighth century AD.
With reference to ancient Indian History, consider the following pairs:
1. Devichandragupta : Bilhana
2. Hammira-Mahakavya : Nayachandra Suri
3. Milinda-panha : Nagarjuna
4. Nitivakyamrita : Somadeva Suri
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
The correct answer is (b). Only two of the above pairs are correctly matched.
Devichandragupta was written by Viśākhadatta, not Bilhana. Hammira-Mahakavya was written by Nayachandra Suri, so this pair is correctly matched. Milinda-panha was written by Nāgasena, not Nagarjuna. Nitivakyamrita was written by Somadeva Suri, so this pair is also correctly matched.
Therefore, only two of the above pairs are correctly matched.
More Explanation:
- Option 1: Devichandragupta was written by Viśākhadatta, not Bilhana. Viśākhadatta was a Sanskrit playwright who lived in the 6th century CE. He is best known for his two plays, Mudrārākṣasa and Devichandraguptam. Bilhana was a Kashmiri poet who lived in the 12th century CE. He is best known for his two epics, Vikramārkacarita and Chaurangī.
- Option 2: Hammira-Mahakavya was written by Nayachandra Suri. Nayachandra Suri was a Kashmiri poet who lived in the 12th century CE. He is best known for his epic poem, Hammira-Mahakavya, which tells the story of Hammira, the last Hindu ruler of the kingdom of Anhilwada Patan. copyright©iasexpress.net
- Option 3: Milinda-panha was written by Nāgasena, not Nagarjuna. Nāgasena was a Buddhist monk who lived in the 1st century CE. He is best known for his dialogue with the Greek king Menander I, which is recorded in the text Milinda-panha. Nagarjuna was a Buddhist philosopher who lived in the 2nd century CE. He is best known for his Madhyamaka school of thought.
- Option 4: Nitivakyamrita was written by Somadeva Suri. Somadeva Suri was a Kashmiri scholar who lived in the 12th century CE. He is best known for his encyclopedic work, Nitivakyamrita, which is a collection of wise sayings and advice on a variety of topics.
The above statement reflects one of the core beliefs of which one of the following religious sects of ancient India?
(a) Buddhism
(b) Jainism
(c) Shaivism
(d) Vaishnavism
The correct answer is (b) Jainism.
Jainism is an ancient Indian religion that teaches that the way to liberation and bliss is to live a life of harmlessness and renunciation. The goal of Jain life is to achieve liberation of the soul. Although Jainism is relatively small compared to the world’s other religions, it is very old. The history of Jainism can be traced back to the 6th century BC with the teachings of Mahavira. However, Jains believe that the religion existed long before that.
One of the core beliefs of Jainism is that all living things have souls, including plants, animals, and even rocks and water. This belief is reflected in the quote, “Souls are not only the property of animal and plant life, but also of rocks, running water and many other natural objects not looked on as living by other religious sects.”
Jainism teaches that all souls are equal and that all living things should be treated with respect. This belief is reflected in the Jain practice of ahimsa, or non-violence. Jains believe that it is wrong to harm any living being, and they go to great lengths to avoid doing so. copyright©iasexpress.net
(a) Devaraya I
(b) Mallikarjuna
(c) Vira Vijaya
(d) Virupaksha
The correct answer is (a): Devaraya I.
Devaraya I was the third ruler of the Vijayanagara Empire. He reigned from 1406 to 1422. Devaraya I was a great warrior and statesman. He expanded the Vijayanagara Empire and made it one of the most powerful empires in South India.
Devaraya I also built a large dam across the Tungabhadra River and a canal-cum-aqueduct several kilometres long from the river to the capital city. This dam and canal-cum-aqueduct were great feats of engineering. They provided water for irrigation and drinking water for the people of the capital city.
Devaraya I was a great ruler. He was a warrior, statesman, and builder. He is considered to be one of the greatest rulers of the Vijayanagara Empire.
Who among the following rulers of medieval Gujarat surrendered Diu to Portuguese?
(a) Ahmad Shah
(b) Mahmud Begarha
(c) Bahadur Shah
(d) Muhammad Shah
The correct answer is (c): Bahadur Shah.
Bahadur Shah was the Sultan of Gujarat from 1526 to 1537. He was the son of Muzaffar Shah II and succeeded his father to the throne. Bahadur Shah was a capable ruler and he expanded the Gujarat Sultanate. He also built a strong navy and he was able to defeat the Portuguese in several battles.
However, Bahadur Shah was eventually defeated by the Portuguese in 1535. He was forced to surrender Diu to the Portuguese and he was also forced to pay a large amount of tribute to them. Bahadur Shah was killed in battle in 1537.
The surrender of Diu to the Portuguese was a major blow to the Gujarat Sultanate. It marked the beginning of the decline of the Sultanate and it also paved the way for the Portuguese to establish their dominance in the Indian Ocean.
(a) The Regulating Act
(b) The Pitt’s India Act
(c) The Charter Act of 1793
(d) The Charter Act of 1833
The correct answer is (d), the Charter Act of 1833.
The Charter Act of 1833 was an Act of the Parliament of the United Kingdom which renewed the charter of the British East India Company, and continued the Company’s administration of the British territories in India. The Act also made the Governor-General of Bengal the Governor-General of India, and vested in him all civil and military power.
In essence, what does Due Process of Law’ mean?
(a) The principle of natural justice
(b) The procedure established by law
(c) Fair application of law
(d) Equality before law
- “Due process of law” does not only check if there is a law to deprive the life and personal liberty of a person, but also checks if the law made is fair, just, and not arbitrary.
- It ensures legal rights owed to a person are respected and that laws must conform to the principles of fairness, fundamental rights, liberty, etc.
- In essence, it includes the idea of procedure established by law but adds the requirement that the procedure should be fair, just, and not arbitrary.
- Therefore, option (c) Fair application of law is correct.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-1 is incorrect. but Statement-II is correct
The correct answer is (a), both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
The Prisons Act, 1894 is the main law governing prisons in India. The Act gives the state governments the power to manage prisons. The state governments have their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons. These rules and regulations are made in accordance with the Prisons Act, 1894.
Therefore, both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct. Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I because it explains the legal basis for the state governments’ power to manage prisons.
(a) It determines the objective for the making of necessary laws.
(b) It enables the creation of political offices and a government.
(c) It defines and limits the powers of government.
(d) It secures social justice, social equality and social security.
The correct answer is (c), it defines and limits the powers of government.
A constitution is a set of fundamental principles or established precedents according to which a state or other organization is acknowledged to be governed. These fundamental principles often include the rights of citizens, the structure of the government, and the limits of government power.
The main purpose of a constitution is to define and limit the powers of government. This is important because it prevents the government from becoming too powerful and infringing on the rights of citizens. A constitution also provides a framework for the government to operate within, and it helps to ensure that the government is accountable to the people.
In addition to defining and limiting the powers of government, a constitution may also include provisions for the protection of individual rights, the establishment of a system of justice, and the promotion of the general welfare.
A constitution is a living document that can be amended or changed over time. This is necessary to ensure that the constitution remains relevant and responsive to the needs of the people. copyright©iasexpress.net
(a) 1st Amendment
(b) 42nd Amendment
(c) 44th Amendment
In India, the 1st Amendment to the Constitution was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights. So, the correct answer is:
(a) 1st Amendment
The 1st Amendment was introduced in 1951, primarily to address the issues arising from the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights, particularly the right to freedom of speech and expression and the right to property. The amendment added two new clauses to Article 19, which dealt with restrictions on the right to freedom of speech and expression and the right to property. It also inserted a new provision, Article 31A, to protect certain land reforms and other laws from being challenged on the grounds of violating the Fundamental Rights.
The other amendments mentioned in the options are not primarily related to overcoming judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights:
(b) The 42nd Amendment, enacted in 1976, is known as the “Mini-Constitution” and introduced several changes to the Constitution, including the expansion of the Directive Principles of State Policy and the Fundamental Duties. It also made the President bound by the advice of the Council of Ministers and curtailed the power of the judiciary to review the constitutionality of laws. copyright©iasexpress.net
(c) The 44th Amendment, enacted in 1978, aimed to reverse some of the changes made by the 42nd Amendment. It restored some of the powers of the judiciary, removed the right to property from the list of Fundamental Rights, and introduced safeguards against the misuse of emergency provisions.
(d) The 86th Amendment, enacted in 2002, added the right to education as a Fundamental Right under Article 21A, making it the responsibility of the state to provide free and compulsory education to all children aged 6 to 14 years.
Inputs from Indian Polity Mindmap Notes and Internet
Consider the following organizations/ bodies in India:
1. The National Commission for Backward Classes
2. The National Human Rights Commission
3. The National Law Commission
4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission
How many of the above constitutional bodies?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Explanation:
Out of the four organizations/bodies mentioned, Only one of them is a constitutional body:
(a) Only one
The National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) is a constitutional body, as it was established under Article 338B of the Indian Constitution through the 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2018.
The other three organizations are statutory/executive bodies, not constitutional bodies:
2. The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) is a statutory body established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
3. The Law Commission of India is an executive body established by an executive order of the Government of India.
4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC) is a statutory body established under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986.
Consider the following statements:
1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid.
2. Election for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place.
3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Explanation:
Statement 1: Validity of Acts Done by the President of India in a Void Election
- This statement is incorrect.
- According to Article 71(2) of the Constitution of India, if the election of a person as President is declared void by the Supreme Court, acts performed by that person in the exercise of their presidential powers and duties before the court’s decision shall not be invalidated.
- Only the acts performed by the President after the date of the Supreme Court’s decision would become invalid.
Statement 2: Postponement of Elections for the President of India copyright©iasexpress.net
- This statement is incorrect.
- According to Article 62 of the Constitution of India, the election of the President must adhere to the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote, with voting conducted through secret ballot.
- The Constitution does not allow for the postponement of the election based on the dissolution of Legislative Assemblies or pending elections.
Statement 3: Time Limits for the President’s Assent to a Bill
- This statement is incorrect.
- The Constitution of India does not specify any time limits within which the President must declare their assent to a Bill.
- Article 111 of the Constitution states that when a Bill is presented to the President for assent, they can either assent to the Bill or withhold their assent.
- However, there are no prescribed time limits for the President to provide their assent.
1. When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill.
2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations.
3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Explanation:
Statement 1: Lok Sabha’s Authority over the Finance Bill
- This statement is correct.
- When the Lok Sabha transmits the Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it has the authority to amend or reject the Bill.
- If the Rajya Sabha does not return the Bill within 14 days, it is considered passed by both Houses.
Statement 2: Lok Sabha’s Authority over Money Bill
- This statement is correct.
- When the Lok Sabha transmits a Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, the Rajya Sabha cannot amend or reject the Bill. It can only make recommendations.
- The Rajya Sabha must return the Bill to the Lok Sabha within 14 days, and if it fails to do so, the Bill is deemed to have been passed by both Houses. copyright©iasexpress.net
Statement 3: Joint Sitting for Finance Bill and Money Bill Disagreement
- This statement is correct.
- In the case of a disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, a joint sitting becomes necessary only for the Finance Bill, not for a Money Bill.
1. the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest
2. hunting is not allowed in such area
3. people of such area are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce
4. people of such area are allowed traditional agricultural practices
How many of the above statements are correct?
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
The correct answer is (c), only three.
Community reserves in India are specially designated protected zones. They typically serve as a transitional or connection area between recognized national parks, wildlife sanctuaries, and other reserved and protected forests in the country.
Statement 1 is correct: According to Section 33 of the WildLife Protection Act (WLPA), when an area is declared as a community reserve by the central government, the Chief Wildlife Warden of the state assumes control over it. His or her approval is mandatory for any decisions concerning the area.
Statement 2 is also correct: Once a forest area is designated as a community reserve, it becomes a no-hunting zone. Hunting within these reserves is strictly prohibited.
Regarding Statements 3 and 4: It’s accurate that individuals in community reserves are permitted to gather non-timber forest products. However, it is incorrect to state that they can engage in traditional farming activities like shifting (jhum) cultivation within these reserves. This is prohibited in community reserves. Therefore, Statement 3 is correct and Statement 4 is wrong.
Hence, only three statements are correct.
With reference to Scheduled Areas in India, consider the following statements:
1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President.
2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block.
3. The Chief Ministers of concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Statement 1: Notification of Scheduled Areas through Presidential Order
- This statement is correct.
- The notification of an area as a Scheduled Area within a State is done through a Presidential Order.
- The President has the authority to declare certain areas as Scheduled Areas based on the criteria specified in the Constitution.
Statement 2: Administrative Units in Scheduled Areas
- This statement is correct.
- In a Scheduled Area, the administrative units are organized from the district level to the cluster of villages in the Block.
- The District is the largest administrative unit, and within the District, there are smaller administrative units such as Blocks and Clusters of villages.
Statement 3: Annual Reports on Scheduled Areas copyright©iasexpress.net
- This statement is incorrect.
- It is the Governor of the concerned State who is responsible for submitting annual reports to the President of India, not the Chief Ministers.
- The Governor acts as the representative of the President in the State and is responsible for reporting on the administration and development activities in the Scheduled Areas to the President through the Union Home Ministry.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgements that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration.
Statement-II :
Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term ‘efficiency of administration’.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-1
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Explanation:
To answer this question, let’s first understand the meaning of Article 16(4) and Article 335 of the Constitution of India.
Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India allows the state to make provisions for the reservation of appointments or posts in favor of any backward class of citizens, which, in the opinion of the state, is not adequately represented in the services under the state.
Article 335 of the Constitution of India states that the claims of the members of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes shall be taken into consideration, consistently with the maintenance of efficiency of administration, in the making of appointments to services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union or of a State. copyright©iasexpress.net
Now, let’s analyze the given statements:
Statement-1 is correct. The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgments that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for the maintenance of efficiency of administration. This is because Article 335 emphasizes the need to maintain efficiency in administration while considering the claims of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes for appointments to services and posts.
Statement-II is incorrect. Article 335 does not explicitly define the term “efficiency of administration.” Instead, it emphasizes the need to maintain efficiency in administration while considering the claims of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes for appointments to services and posts.
Therefore, the correct answer is:
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
Inputs from Prelims Sureshots >> Landmark Cases that Shaped India
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
India, despite having uranium deposits, depends on coal f